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C
29.How should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight
plan?
A.The initial fix, the true course, and the final fix.
B.All radio fixes over which the flight will pass.
C.The initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be
compulsory reporting points, and the final fix.
B
30.To assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight,
the word “LIFEGUARD?should be entered in which section of the
flight plan?
A.Aircraft type/special equipment block.
B.Pilot’s name and address block.
C.Remarks block.
C
31．What is the purpose of the term “hold for release?when included
in an IFR clearance?
A.A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or
need to issue further instructions.
B.When an IFR clearance is received by telephone, the pilot will have
time to prepare for takeoff prior to being released.
C.Gate hold procedures are in effect and the pilot receives an
estimate of the time the flight will be released.
A
32.How should the route of flight be defined on an IFR flight plan?
A.A simplified route via airways or jet routes with transitions.
B.A route via airways or jet routes with VORs and fixes used.
C.A route via airways or jet routes with only the compulsory reporting
points.
A
33.In what altitude structure is a transponder required when
operating in controlled airspace?
A.Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below
2,500 feet AGL.
B.Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below
2,500 feet AGL.
C.Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below
2,500 feet AGL.
B
34.What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final
approach course during an IFR approach?
A.Continue on the last heading issued until otherwise instructed.
B.Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing
the final approach course.
C.Turn onto final, and broadcast in the blind that the flight has
proceeded on final.
B
35．What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations
with pretaxi clearance programs?
A.Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. The pilot will
receive taxi instruction with clearance.
B.Pilots request IFR clearance when ready to taxi. Pilots will receive
taxi clearance, then receive IFR clearance while taxiing or on runup.
C.Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then
request taxi clearance from ground control.
C
36.When simultaneous ILS approaches are in progress, which of the
following should approach control be advised of immediately?
A.Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.
B.If a simultaneous ILS approach is desired.
C.If radar monitoring is desired to confirm lateral separation.
A
37.Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior
to completing the flight?
A．Anytime it appears the clearance will cause a deviation from
FARs.
B．Anytime within controlled airspace by contacting ARTCC.
C．Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.
C
38．When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from
an ILS approach?
A.At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible.
B.When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway
environment is not clearly visible.
C.At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not
distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.
C
39.What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS
approach? The pilot
A．may begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude.
B．must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a
published route or segment of the approach with published
altitudes.
C．may descend from the assigned altitude only when established
on the final approach course.
B
40.When is radar service terminated while vectored for an IFR
approach at an uncontrolled airport?
A.Only upon landing or advised to change to advisory frequency.
B.When aligned on the final approach course.
C.When cleared for the approach.
A
41.When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a
specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point
is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A.At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.
B.As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in
sight.
C.At the localizer MDA minimums and when the runway is in sight.
B
42.When using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank
　
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